In our Romans series, Josh referenced back to John 8:33, where the Jewish listeners say, “We are descendants of Abraham and have never been enslaved to anyone…” What is their point here? It also doesn’t seem accurate. One of their main national events in history was the Exodus, where they left slavery. Not to mention they were overcome and under the power of Rome at the time, and had been conquered, made to pay tribute, deported, etc, all throughout their history. Why do they claim to have never been enslaved?
The people, as you rightly observe, must mean something more than slavery to another nation. For, indeed, they were slaves in Egypt. Not to mention them being conquered and subject to Assyria, Babylon, Greece, Syria, and Rome.
The Jews speaking to Jesus would have had more freedom under Roman rule than their ancestors had previously experienced. Yet they were a conquered, not free people, nonetheless.
So what did they mean by “we have never been enslaved to anyone?” I think we find a clue to the answer by following the conversation between the Jews and Jesus.
Jesus points out their contradiction of claiming Abraham as their father while not doing the works of Abraham (ie, living by true faith in God). They then argue that God is their Father. These are spiritual claims of freedom, which Jesus is trying to show them are untrue, for they are, in fact, spiritual slaves.
Jesus is pointing out to them that, just as they are not free from the rule of Rome, they are not spiritually free from the devil.